AC Milan winger Hakan Calhanoglu has been offered to Premier League side Arsenal, according to the latest reports.
Calhanoglu has started almost every game for the Rossoneri since the arrival of head coach Stefano Pioli in October, however his future at the club appears to be far from certain despite this.
Calciomercato.com recently reported that his departure in January is a possibility with a €20m asking price set, while Tuttosport (via MilanNews.it) claimed that Roma, Arsenal and Manchester United are keen.
The Turkey international has missed the last two games, and journalist Alessandro Jacobone claimed on Monday night that his agent is working to try and generate offers for his client to present to Milan.
According to SportMediaset, Calhanoglu is indeed looking for a new destination and his agent Bektas Demirtas is working to find a new team for his client.
Demirtas has apparently even offered Calhanoglu’s services to Arsenal, though they do not seem keen on the idea of a move at present, the report concludes.